Cloud Security Alliance CCSK Certification Exam Dumps with 305 Practice Test Questions
New CCSK Exam Dumps with High Passing Rate
NEW QUESTION # 114
The granting of right to access to a user. program or process. is called:
- A. Authentication
- B. Authorization
- C. Entitlement
- D. RBAC
Answer: B
Explanation:
Authorization is the process of granting of right to access to a user, program or process. It should not be confused with Authentication.
NEW QUESTION # 115
What is the best way to ensure that all data has been removed from a public cloud environment including all media such as back-up tapes?
- A. Maintaining customer managed key management and revoking or deleting keys from the key management system to prevent the data from being accessed again.
- B. Practice Integration of Duties (IOD) so that everyone is able to delete the encrypted data.
- C. Allowing the cloud provider to manage your keys so that they have the ability to access and delete the data from the main and back-up storage.
- D. Keep the keys stored on the client side so that they are secure and so that the users have the ability to delete their own data.
- E. Both B and D.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 116
Which of the following is not part of STRIDE model?
- A. Elevation of Privilege
- B. Distributed Denial of Service
- C. Spoofing
- D. Denial of Service
Answer: B
Explanation:
The letters in STRIDE threat model represent Spoofing of identity, Tampering with data, Repudiation, Information disclosure, Denial of service, and Elevation of privilege. The other options are simply mixed up or incorrect versions of the same.
NEW QUESTION # 117
In a cloud context, what does entitlement refer to in relation to a user's permissions?
- A. The ability for a user to grant access permissions to other users in the cloud environment.
- B. The level of technical support a user is entitled to from the cloud service provider.
- C. The resources or services a user is granted permission to access in the cloud environment.
- D. The authentication methods a user is required to use when accessing the cloud environment.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In a cloud context, entitlement refers to the specific resources or services a user is granted permission to access based on their roles or permissions. This includes access to applications, data, or cloud services, and is typically managed through Identity and Access Management (IAM) systems, which define what users can do and what they can access within the cloud environment.
NEW QUESTION # 118
Which is the primary tool for governance in Cloud Computing environment?
- A. Service Level Agreement
- B. Governance memo
- C. Contract
- D. Operational level Agreement
Answer: D
Explanation:
Contracts: The primary tool of governance is the contract between a cloud provider and a cloud customer(this is true for public and private cloud). The contract is your only guarantee of any level of service or commitment-assuming there is no breach of contract, which tosses everything into a legal scenario. Contracts are the primary tool to extend governance into business partners and providers.
Ref: Security Guidance v4.0 Copyright2017, Cloud Security Alliance(used for educational purpose here)
NEW QUESTION # 119
Which of the following is true after your organization migrates the data to the cloud?
- A. It is totally secure because cloud service providers have more security.
- B. Cloud service provider will be legally liable for any data breach.
- C. Breaches will be termed as loss of Intellectual property.
- D. In case of data breach, you as a customer, will be still legally liable.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Even after cloud migration. cloud customer is responsible for the data and ultimately liable for any data loss or breaches.
NEW QUESTION # 120
Which of the following statements best describes an identity
federation?
- A. Several countries which have agreed to define their identities with
similar attributes - B. Identities which share similar attributes
- C. A group of entities which have decided to exist together in a single
cloud - D. The connection of one identity repository to another
- E. A library of data definitions
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 121
A health care facility has to only comply with HIPAA and do not need to comply with PCI DSS.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: A
Explanation:
This is a tricky question. It is true that health care facility need to comply with HIPAA but if the healthcare facility is processing credit cards, they will have to comply with PCI DSS as well
NEW QUESTION # 122
Which resilience tool helps distribute network or application traffic across multiple servers to ensure reliability and availability?
- A. Load balancing
- B. Failover
- C. Auto-scaling
- D. Redundancy
Answer: A
Explanation:
Load balancing is a key resilience strategy in both traditional and cloud environments. It evenly distributes network or application traffic across multiple servers to ensure no single server becomes a point of failure or overloaded, thereby improving system availability, performance, and fault tolerance.
In cloud infrastructure, load balancers may work at various OSI layers (Layer 4 or Layer 7) and are often integrated into cloud platforms as managed services (e.g., AWS Elastic Load Balancer or Azure Load Balancer). They play a critical role in mitigating risks like traffic spikes, system failure, or regional outages.
This technique is described inDomain 7: Infrastructure Securityof the CCSK guidance, which highlights tools like load balancing, redundant systems, and failover mechanisms to support cloud resilience and availability.
Reference:CSA Security Guidance v4.0 - Domain 7: Infrastructure Security
NEW QUESTION # 123
What is a core tenant of risk management?
- A. You can manage, transfer, accept, or avoid risks.
- B. The consumers are completely responsible for all risk.
- C. The provider is accountable for all risk management.
- D. If there is still residual risk after assessments and controls are in
place, you must accept the risk. - E. Risk insurance covers all financial losses, including loss of customers.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 124
A security failure at the root network of a cloud provider will not compromise the security of all customers because of multitenancy configuration.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 125
Which is the core technology for enabling cloud computing and used to convert fixed infrastructure into pooled resources?
- A. Virtualization
- B. Auto-Scaling
- C. Software Defined Networking
- D. Application Programming Interfaces
Answer: A
Explanation:
Virtualization isn't merely a tool for creating virtual machines-it's the core technology for enabling cloud computing. We use virtualization all throughout computing, from full operating virtual machines to virtual execution environments like the Java Virtual Machine, as well as in storage, networking, and beyond.
Reference: CSA Security Guidelines V.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION # 126
In the shared security model, how does the allocation of responsibility vary by service?
- A. Based on the per-service SLAs for security.
- B. Shared responsibilities should be consistent across all services.
- C. Responsibilities are the same across IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS in the shared model.
- D. Responsibilities are divided between the cloud provider and the customer based on the service type.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The division of security responsibilities changes according to the service model. In IaaS, CSCs handle more security responsibilities, while in SaaS, the CSP manages more of the security aspects. Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 1 - Shared Responsibility Model][source 17].
NEW QUESTION # 127
How does virtualized storage help avoid data loss if a drive fails?
- A. Full back ups weekly
- B. Incremental backups daily
- C. Multiple copies in different locations
- D. Data loss is unavoidable with drive failures
- E. Drives are backed up, swapped, and archived constantly
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 128
Which of the following from the governance hierarchy provides specific goals to minimize risk and maintain a secure environment?
- A. Implementation guidance
- B. Control objectives
- C. Policies
- D. Control specifications
Answer: B
Explanation:
Control objectives are specific goals or outcomes designed to minimize risk and maintain a secure environment. They are part of a broader governance framework and provide clear, measurable targets that organizations aim to achieve in order to meet security, compliance, and operational goals. Control objectives help guide the implementation of security measures and ensure the organization's security posture aligns with its risk management strategy.
Implementation guidance provides detailed instructions on how to implement controls but does not set specific goals. Policies define the high-level principles and rules that guide behavior and decision-making, but they are more general than control objectives. Control specifications typically define how specific controls are implemented but do not establish the overarching goals that guide risk management.
NEW QUESTION # 129
What is the primary advantage of implementing Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery/Deployment (CI/CD) pipelines in the context of cybersecurity?
- A. Slowing down the development process for testing.
- B. Automating security checks and deployments.
- C. Replacing the need for security teams.
- D. Enhancing code quality.
Answer: B
Explanation:
CI/CD pipelines integrate security into the DevOps process, ensuring thatsecurity is automated at every stage of the software development lifecycle (SDLC).
Why CI/CD Pipelines Enhance Cloud Security?
* Automates Security Scans & Compliance Checks
* CI/CD pipelines integrate Static Application Security Testing (SAST) & Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST).
* Infrastructure as Code (IaC) security scans prevent misconfigurations in cloud deployments.
* Reduces Human Errors in Security Configurations
* Automates security best practices (e.g., enforcing HTTPS, setting least privilege IAM roles).
* Reduces risk of manual security misconfigurations.
* Speeds Up Secure Deployments
* Automatically tests for vulnerabilities before production releases.
* Ensures that security patches are rapidly deployedwithout breaking functionality.
* Shifts Security Left in DevSecOps
* CI/CD enables early vulnerability detectionin thedevelopment phase, reducing costs and risks.
* Cloud-native CI/CD tools like AWS CodePipeline, GitHub Actions, and Jenkins integrate security automation.
This aligns with:
* CCSK v5 - Security Guidance v4.0, Domain 10 (Application Security)
* DevSecOps and Cloud Security Best Practices (Cloud Security Alliance - DevSecOps Working Group).
NEW QUESTION # 130
Which of the following is NOT one of the common networks underlying in Cloud Infrastructure?
- A. Storage Network
- B. Service Network
- C. Management Network
- D. Security Network
Answer: D
Explanation:
If you are a cloud provider (including managing a private cloud), physical segregation of networks composing your cloud is important for both operational and security reasons. We most commonly see at least three different networks which are isolated onto dedicated hardware since there is no functional or traffic overlap:
1. The service network for communications between virtual machines and the Internet. This builds the network resource pool for the cloud users.
2. The storage network to connect virtual storage to virtual machines.
3. A management network for management and API traffic.
Ref: Reference: CSA Security GuidelinesV.4 (reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION # 131
Which are the two major categories of network virtualization commonly seen in cloud computing today?
- A. Software Defined Networks and Virtual LANs(VLANs)
- B. Software Defined Networks and Virtual Private Networks
- C. Virtual LANS(VLANs)and Converged Networks
- D. Virtual Private Networks and Converged Network
Answer: C
Explanation:
There are two major categories of network virtualization commonly seen in cloud computing today:
. Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs): VLANs leverage existing network technology implemented in most network hardware.
VLANs are extremely common in enterprise networks, even without Management Storage Service Management plane to nodes storage nodes (volumes) to compute nodes (instances) Internet to compute nodes Instances to instance Common networks underlying IaaS. They are designed for use in single-tenant networks (enterprise data centers) to separate different business units, functions, etc. (like guest networks). VLANs are not designed for cloud-scale virtualization or security and shouldn't be considered, on their own, an effective security control for isolating networks. They are also never a substitute for physical network segregation.
. Software Defined Networking(SDN): A more complete abstraction layer on top of networking hardware, SDNs decouple the network control plane from the data. This allows us to abstract networking from the traditional limitations of a LAN.
Ref: CSA Security Guidelines V.4 (reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION # 132
GRC is responsibility of ______ in the all cloud services models
- A. Service Provider
- B. Customer
- C. Cloud Access Security Broker(CASB)
- D. Reseller
Answer: B
Explanation:
GRC and data is responsibility of the customer in all service models according to shared responsibility model.
NEW QUESTION # 133
What is the primary function of a Load Balancer Service in a Software Defined Network (SDN) environment?
- A. To monitor network performance and activity
- B. To encrypt data for secure transmission
- C. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple destinations
- D. To create isolated virtual networks
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple destinations.
A Load Balancer Service in an SDN environment is responsible for efficiently distributing network traffic across multiple servers or instances. This ensures high availability, reliability, and optimized resource usage.
Key Functions:
* Traffic Distribution: Balances incoming requests to various servers based on predefined algorithms (round-robin, least connections, etc.).
* High Availability: Prevents server overload and reduces downtime by distributing workload.
* Scalability: Automatically adjusts as the number of requests or available resources changes.
* Health Monitoring: Continually checks server availability and responsiveness to avoid directing traffic to non-responsive instances.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
* A. Isolated virtual networks: Creating isolated networks is a function of network virtualization, not load balancing.
* B. Monitor network performance: Monitoring is done by network monitoring tools, not load balancers.
* D. Encrypt data for secure transmission: Encryption is handled by security protocols like TLS/SSL, not load balancers.
Real-World Example:
Services like AWS Elastic Load Balancer (ELB) and Azure Load Balancer ensure that traffic is distributed efficiently across instances, maintaining performance and uptime.
References:
CSA Security Guidance v4.0, Domain 7: Infrastructure Security
Cloud Computing Security Risk Assessment (ENISA) - SDN and Load Balancing Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) v3.0.1 - Network and Infrastructure Domains
NEW QUESTION # 134
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